Today I saw many stock investors giving bearish reasons based on large net outflows of funds from a certain stock. To be honest, is there a possibility that selling one stock corresponds to buying another? If there's only selling without buying, the stock simply couldn't be traded. As for how exchanges define fund inflows and outflows, you can search that yourself.

If major players or institutions' selling could be reflected in fund inflows and outflows, I think the most miserable ones in this market would be the major players😂